It doesn’t make much sense to me for the Democratic party in those states(I’m a registereed Democrat) to have had Primary elections in Michigan and Florida that, by its rules,were too early. Then, because the rules said they were too early, they didn’t want those state’s votes counted or their delegates to vote at the convention. If Michigan and Florida politicians knew of the rule against early primary election date, why were those dates set so early?  Did they not think that they were supposed to go by that rule and, if they didn’t, the votes might be questioned.  Those people voted in good faith, were eligible to vote and should not essentially have their vote denied. Is that not the same as denying them their right to vote and, if so, is that Constitutional?